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Old 04-18-2018, 04:31 PM   #2
D-BacksJosh
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Join Date: May 2011
Location: Arizona
Posts: 875
Quote:
Originally Posted by NoOne View Post
someone explain how you can let up a homerun and have a 0.00 ERA?

that should be at least 1 earned run, correct? how could a homerun not have at least 1 earned run? game log shows grand slam hit off him even if not all the baseruners are his, he is aco****able for at least 1 i would think

fyi, this is from ootp18.

Edit: nevermind, i see how it's possible now... seems a bit retarded though.
was there an error involved?
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